John 6:62

By

Biblical Unitarian

 

1. This verse is referring to the resurrection of Christ. This fact is clear from studying the context. Because the translators have chosen to translate anabaino as "ascend," people believe it refers to Christ's ascension from earth as recorded in Acts 1:9, but Acts 1:9 does not use this word. Anabaino simply means "to go up." It is used of "going up" to a higher elevation as in climbing a mountain (Matt. 5:1; 14:23, et al.), of Jesus "coming up" from under the water at his baptism (Matt. 3:16; Mark 1:10), of plants that "grow up" out of the ground (Matt. 13:7; Mark 4:7, 8 and 32), or of even just "going up," i.e., "climbing," a tree (Luke 19:4). Christ was simply asking if they would be offended if they saw him "come up" out of the ground, i.e., be resurrected, and be where he was before, i.e., alive and on the earth.

2. The context confirms that Jesus was speaking about being the bread from heaven and giving life via his resurrection. Verses such as 39, 40 and 44 confirm this: Jesus repeatedly said, "I will raise him [each believer] up at the last day." Christ was amazed that even some of his disciples were offended at his teaching. He had been speaking of the resurrection, and they were offended, so he asked them if they would be offended if they saw him resurrected, which has been unfortunately translated as "ascend" in verse 62.

Norton, pp. 248-252

Snedeker p. 215

 

Source: http://www.biblicalunitarian.com/modules.php?name=Content&pa=showpage&pid=97

 

 

 

John 6:62

 

By

 

Wrested Scriptures

 

 

John 6:62

"What and if ye shall see the Son of man ascend up where he was before?"

Problem:

It is argued that if the Son of man could ascend up to where he was before, then clearly he must have pre-existed before his "incarnation" on earth.

Solution:

1. This passage proves too much. It is argued that "God the Son" pre-existed as a spirit creature in heaven prior to his "incarnation", but the passage in John reads, "What and if ye shall see the Son of man ascend up where he was before?" Did the Son of man literally come down from heaven?
2. The context indicates that verse 62 is part of a discourse in which Jesus compares himself to the manna which God provided for Israel. The fact that this manna was referred to as "bread from heaven" (vs. 31) did not mean that it actually descended from heaven through the great expanse of space to the earth, but rather that it had its origin in heaven. Similarly, Christ was of divine origin - "from heaven", since the Holy Spirit was sent from heaven to effect his conception in the womb of Mary. (Luke 1:35). He later ascended to heaven. (Acts 1:10, 11).
3. This passage may be an allusion to Jesus' resurrection from the dead.  "Ascend up" comes from the Greek "anabaino", and is the same word used to describe Jesus as he came up out of the waters of baptism in the Jordan River.  And as we all know, baptism is a symbol of death and RESURRECTION.   In John 6, Jesus could have been posing a rhetorical question, "If people stumble over me now, what will they do when I rise from the dead?"

 

Source: http://www.wrestedscriptures.com/b08trinity/john6v62.html

 

 

 

 

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